LET Reviewer - PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION Part-27 (50 Items)

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PROF ED (27)
1) Mr. Santiago gave a chapter test. In which competency did students find the greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of ________.
a. 0.15
b. 1.0
c. 0.93
d. 0.51

2) Which statement about standard deviation is CORRECT?
a. The lower the standard deviation, the more spread the scores are.
b. The higher the standard deviation, the less spread the scores are.
c. The higher the standard deviation, the more spread the scores are.
d. It is a measure of central tendency.

3) The index of difficulty of a particular test item is .10. What does this mean? My students ________.
a. gained mastery over an item
b. performed very well against expectation
c. found that test item was either easy nor difficult
d. were hard up in that item

4) The mode of a score distribution is 25. This means that?
a. Twenty-five is the score that occurs least.
b. Twenty-five is the score that occurs most.
c. Twenty-five is the average of the score distribution.
d. There is no score of 25

5) After teaching lessons, Ms. Chavez gave a quiz to her class. Which does she give?
a. Diagnostic test
b. Summative test
c. Performance test
d. Formative test

6) The variance, standard deviation, and range are all measures of ________.
a. variability
b. central tendency
c. grouping
d. partition values

7) If a teacher gets a difference between the highest score and the lowest score, he obtains the ________.
a. range
b. standard deviation
c. mean
d. index off difficulty

8) Which applies when the score distribution is concentrated at the left side of the curve?
a. Bell curve
b. Positively skewed
c. Bimodal
d. Negatively skewed

9) In a normal curve distribution, about how many percent of the cases fall between -1SD to +1SD?
a. 34.13%
b. 68.26%
c. 15.73%
d. 49.86%

10) The scores of the students in a tutorial class are as follows: 82, 82, 85, 86, 87, 94, 98. The score 86 is the ________.
a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Median & Mode

11) The discrimination index of a test item is -0.46. What does this imply?
a. More students from the upper group answered the item incorrectly.
b. More students from the upper group answered the item correctly.
c. More students from the lower group answered the item correctly.
d. The number of students from the lower group and upper group who answered the item correctly are equal.

12) Which statement is true when the value of standard deviation is small?
a. The scores are found at the extremes of the distribution.
b. The scores are spread out from the mean value.
c. The scores are concentrated around the mean value.
d. The shape of the distribution is a bell curve.

13) Which of the following statements is one of the characteristics of a normal curve distribution?
a. There are more high scores than low scores.
b. The scores are normally distributed.
c. Most of the scores are low.
d. There are more low scores than high scores.

14) The score distribution is 50, 49, 49, 49, 48, 48, 40, 39, 39, 39, 35, 30, 30, 30, 26, 25, 25, 24, 24, 20, 20, 20, 19, 15, 14, 13, 10, 10. Which is the best way to describe the given score distribution?
a. unimodal
b. bimodal
c. positively skewed
d. multimodal

15) Teacher Gerald gave a 50-item test where the mean performance of the class is 35 with a standard deviation of 7. Ace got a score of 41. What description rating should Teacher Gerald give to Ace?
a. Poor
b. Outstanding
c. Average
d. Above Average

16) Which of the following statements best describes negatively skewed distribution mean?
a. Most of the scores of the test-takers are above the mean.
b. Most of the scores of the test-takers are low.
c. The scores of the test-takers are normally distributed.
d. The mean and the median of the test-takers are equal.

17) What does positively skewed distribution mean?
a. The mean is less than the median.
b. The mean is greater than the median.
c. The mean is equal to the median.
d. The scores are normally distributed.

18) In the parlance of test construction, what does TOS mean?
a. Test of Specifics
b. Term of Specifications
c. Table of Specifications
d. Table of Specific Item Test

19) Raul obtained a NSAT percentile rank of 98. This implies that ________. a. Raul answered 98 items correctly.
b. Raul got score of 98.
c. Raul performed better than 2% of his fellow examinees.
d. Raul performed better than 98% of his fellow examinees.

20) Which of the following measures of variation is easily affected by extreme scores?
a. range
b. inter-quartile range
c. variance
d. standard variation

21) Which of the following measures of central tendency is easily affected by extreme scores?
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. quartile

22) The computed r for the scores in Math and English is 0.95. What does this imply?
a. The English score is not related to the Math score.
b. The Math score is not related to the English score.
c. The Math score is positively related to the English score.
d. The lower the score in English, the higher the score in Math.

23) Teacher Ara gave a test in Science. Item no. 18 has a difficulty index of 0.85 and discrimination index of -0.10. What should Teacher Ara do?
a. retain the item
b. make the item bonus
c. reject the item
d. reject it and make the item bonus

24) Which of the following measures of central tendency can be determined by mere inspection?
a. median
b. mode
c. mean
d. mode and median

25) Which of the following is true about rubrics?
a. It is analytical
b. It is holistic
c. It is developmental
d. It is both analytical and holistic

26) Which of the following considerations is/are important in developing a scoring rubric?
I. Description of each criteria to serve as standard
II. Very clear descriptions of performance in each level
III. Rating scale IV. Mastery levels of achievement
a. I only
b. I, II & III
c. I & II
d. I, II, III & IV

27) Which is the most reliable tool for seeing the development in your pupil's ability to write?
a. Interview of pupils
b. Self-assessment
c. Scoring rubric
d. Portfolio assessment

28) Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
a. They merely emphasize process.
b. They also stress on doing, not only knowing.
c. Essay tests are example of performance-based assessment.
d. They accentuate on process as well as product.

29) Which of the following can measure awareness of values?
a. Rating scales
b. Projective technique
c. Role playing
d. Moral dilemma

30) Which of the following does NOT belong to the group when we are talking about projective personality test?
a. Sentence completion test
b. Word association test
c. Interview
d. Thematic Apperception test

31) Teacher Julie wrote of JM: "When JM came to class this morning, he seemed very tired and slouched into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed to have no interest in what was being discussed. This was very unusual for he has been eager to participate and often monopolized the class discussion." What Teacher Julie wrote is an example of a/an ________.
a. incident report
b. observation report
c. personality report
d. anecdotal report

32) Student Louie was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student Louie and his classmates at once remarked: "What's wrong?" What does this mean?
a. Reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior.
b. The parents of student Louie must be of the delinquent type.
c. Student Louie is a "problem student".
d. Guidance counselors are perceived to be "almighty and omniscient".

33) Which of the following statements talks about one of the strengths of an autobiography as a technique for personality appraisal?
a. It can replace data obtained from other data gathering techniques.
b. It may be read by unauthorized people.
c. It gives complete data about the author.
d. It makes the presentation of intimate experiences possible.

34) Carl Roger is considered the main proponent of ________ counseling?
a. Non-directive
b. Directive
c. Rational Emotive
d. Psychotherapy

35) Counselor Ria shares the secrets of his counselee with other members of the faculty. The counselor violates the principle of?
a. secrecy
b. confidentiality
c. ethics
d. promises

36) He is considered the father of counseling in the Philippines?
a. Father Bulatao
b. Sinfroso Padilla
c. Dean Rose Clemenia
d. Sigmund Freud

37) The counselee revealed that she will commit suicide over the weekend. Can the counselor reveal the secret to the parents?
a. Yes, it is mandatory that in cases involving suicide, confidentiality is superseded.
b. Yes, as long as he tells the parents that he is not the source.
c. No, the counselor has no right.
d. No, because it is unethical.

38) This is the pre-planned collection of samples of student works, assessed results and other output produced by the students.
a. diary
b. observation report
c. portfolio
d. anecdotal record

39) Assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher ________.
a. considers students' suggestions in testing
b. gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil tests
c. includes parents in the determination of assessment procedures
d. gives students real-life tasks to accomplish

40) What is the main purpose if a teacher uses a standardized test?
a. to compare her students to national norms
b. to serve as a final examination
c. to serve as a unit test
d. to engage in easy scoring

41) Teacher Dan gave a pretest and most of his students passed the pretest. What should Teacher Dan do?
a. Go on to the next unit.
b. Go through the lesson quickly in order not to skip any.
c. Go through the unit as usual because it is part of the syllabus.
d. Administer the post test.

42) "_____________________ is an example of mammal." Why is this test item poor?
I. The language used in the question is not precise.
II. The test item does not pose a problem to the examinee.
III. The blank is near the beginning of a sentence.
IV. There are many possible correct answers to this item.

a. II & IV
b. I & II
c. I & III
d. III & IV

43) Teacher Ian gave a test in English to all grade VI pupils to determine the contestants for English Quiz Bee. To identify the Top 10 who will participate in the said quiz bee, which statistical measure should be considered?
a. Percentile Rank
b. Percentage Score
c. Quartile
d. Mean

44) Which of the following statements is true about marking on a normative basis?
a. Most of the students get low scores.
b. Most of the students get high scores.
c. The grading should based from the present criteria.
d. The normal distribution curve should be followed.

45) Which must go with self-assessment for it to be effective?
a. Consensus of evaluation results from teacher and student
b. Scoring rubric
c. External monitor
d. Public display of results of self-evaluation

46) Which assessment activity is most appropriate to measure the objective "to explain the meaning of molecular bonding" for the group with strong interpersonal intelligence?
a. Write down chemical formulas and show how they were derived.
b. Build several molecular structures with multi-colored pop beads.
c. Draw diagrams that show different bonding patterns.
d. Demonstrate molecular bonding using students as atoms.

47) Which goes with the spirit of "assessment for learning"?
a. emphasis on grades and honors
b. emphasis on self-assessment
c. absence of formative tests
d. stress on summative tests

48) Here are computed means of a 100-item test: Science - 38; Math - 52; English - 33. Based on the data, which of the following statement is true?
a. The Math test appears to be the easiest among the three.
b. The examinees seem to be very good in Science.
c. The examinees seem to excel in English.
d. The English test appears to be the easiest among the three.

49) The difficulty index of test item no. 20 is 1. What does this imply?
a. The test is very difficult
b. The test is very easy
c. The test item is a quality item
d. Nobody got the item correctly

50) What is the mastery level of a score division in a 100-item test with a mean of 55?
a. 42%
b. 55%
c. 45%
d. 50%

PROF ED (27) ANSWERS:
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. B
25. C
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. D
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. D
34. A
35. B
36. B
37. A
38. C
39. D
40. D
41. C
42. A
43. B
44. D
45. B
46. D
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. B


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